On Mon, 02 Aug 1999 00:16:33 +1200 John Berry <antigrav@ihug.co.nz>
writes:
> I guess replying to your own question is a bit stupid, well I will
> anyway, I'm
> pretty sure that they would all start to vibrate in the same phase
> after time
> (we'll ignore loss of energy), The question now is what energy is
> released from
> a vibrating atom that would effect the vibration of other atoms, if
> there is
> such a force then one would expect that all atoms of that frequency
> would come
> into the same phase as soon as there was any asymmetry in their
> phase.
When I think about how most other things seem to work,
it seems to me that each tuning fork ( or atom) has its own
source of energy and amplitude of the energy.
If the phase of another source of vibrating energy (same
frequency) is to dominate the phases of these forks (or atoms)
it will have to have greater amplitude or power to overcome the
the "natural" phase of the moment OR ,through whatever
mechanism, cause the effect of less resistance (impedance?)
to vibration at the "dominant" phase.
David
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