> And if the magnitude of this "stress" is modulated, any
> hypothetical "ether" could be reasonably expected to
> transmit a longitudinal wave in sympathy with this
> modulation. Is this what is meant by the term "scalar wave"?
Pretty sure, yea. If this stress were modulated, a wave results. (Common,
use common sense -- a standing pressure on a conductor is DC, while a
mdoulated one is AC -- it's real simple - but anyway, yes.)
> >This still
> >doesn't explain the difference between what Tesla's longitudinal waves
> >were and Bearden's scalars (since supposably longitudinal waves can be
> >detected using conventional equipment - while Bearden's scalars cannot).
>
> Can we take it for granted that they are different? You say
> "*supposedly* longitudinal waves can be detected using
> conventional equipment". Has this experiment actually been
> done? Do you have details of the equipment and the results?
> What was Tesla using to generate his alleged longitudinal
> waves?
> Is it possible in this context that Tesla's longitudinal waves
> were not pure and had a parasitic transverse component which
> was what was actually being detected?
I'm unsure. I forget who it was - someone on THIS list earlier who said
that longitudinal waves and scalar "waves" (ugh - misnomers!!!) were two
different phenomenon, and that longitudinal waves were detectable using
conventional EM equipment. Would the real McCoy please stand up? :)
Anyway - that's basically what I was thinking (what you said about a
parasitic transverse component). Something has troubled me: on all
diagrams (dragging the right-hand-rule bullshit into this), magnetic
fields are seen moving at a 90 degree angle... the very definition of a
transverse wave. No problem there... but if we were to view a
cross-section of the EM pair (imagine a circle, where dead center is the
center of the wave -- which is the vector of travel, along which
longitudinal charge moves -- while radiating outward from this is the
magnetic field) -- does this magnetic field *HAVE* to bounce from 270 to
90 degrees (remember the cross-section)? Is it possible to re-orient the
magnetic component so it bounces "longitudinally" (i.e. from 0 to 180
degrees relative to the center)? If so - then suddenly Tesla's comments of
"longitudinal" waves make so much more sense: his use of longitudinal was
describing the angle at which the magnetic field moves - not that it
wasn't transverse. At least - that's the way I see it. If I'm wrong -
someone stop me. :)